[Q33-Q55] Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate by ISACA Actual Free Exam Questions And Answers [UPDATED 2024]

[Q33-Q55] Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate by ISACA Actual Free Exam Questions And Answers [UPDATED 2024]

January 9, 2024 latestexam 0 Comments

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Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate by ISACA Actual Free Exam Questions And Answers [UPDATED 2024]

Cybersecurity-Audit-Certificate Questions Truly Valid For Your ISACA Exam!

Q33. Which of the following is a computer-software vulnerability that is unknown to those who would be interested in mitigating the vulnerability?

Cross-site scripting vulnerability

SQL injection vulnerability

Memory leakage vulnerability

Zero-day vulnerability

Explanation
A computer-software vulnerability that is unknown to those who would be interested in mitigating the vulnerability is a zero-day vulnerability. This is because a zero-day vulnerability is a type of vulnerability that has not been reported or disclosed to the public or to the software vendor yet, and may be exploited by attackers before it is patched or fixed. A zero-day vulnerability poses a high risk to systems and applications that are affected by it, as there may be no known defense or solution against it. The other options are not computer-software vulnerabilities that are unknown to those who would be interested in mitigating the vulnerability, but rather types of vulnerabilities that are known and reported to the public or to the software vendor, such as cross-site scripting vulnerability (A), SQL injection vulnerability (B), or memory leakage vulnerability C.

Q34. Which of the following features of continuous auditing provides the BEST level of assurance over traditional sampling?

Reports can be generated more frequently for management.

Automated tools provide more reliability than an auditors personal judgment

Voluminous dale can be analyzed at a high speed to show relevant patterns.

Continuous auditing tools are less complex for auditors to manage.

Explanation
The feature of continuous auditing that provides the BEST level of assurance over traditional sampling is that voluminous data can be analyzed at a high speed to show relevant patterns. This is because continuous auditing is a technique that uses automated tools and processes to perform audit activities on a continuous or near-real-time basis, and to analyze large amounts of data from various sources and systems. Continuous auditing helps to provide a higher level of assurance than traditional sampling, by covering the entire population of transactions or events, rather than a subset or sample, and by identifying trends, anomalies, or exceptions that may indicate risks or issues. The other options are not features of continuous auditing that provide the best level of assurance over traditional sampling, but rather different aspects or benefits of continuous auditing, such as reporting frequency (A), reliability (B), or complexity (D).

Q35. Which of the following is an example of an application security control?

Secure coding

User security awareness training

Security operations center

Intrusion detection

Explanation
An example of an application security control is secure coding. Secure coding is the practice of developing software applications that follow security principles and standards to prevent or mitigate common vulnerabilities and risks. Secure coding involves applying techniques such as input validation, output encoding, error handling, encryption, and testing.

Q36. What would be an IS auditor’s BEST response to an IT managers statement that the risk associated with the use of mobile devices in an organizational setting is the same as for any other device?

Replication of privileged access and the greater likelihood of physical loss increases risk levels.

The risk associated with mobile devices is less than that of other devices and systems.

The risk associated with mobile devices cannot be mitigated with similar controls for workstations.

The ability to wipe mobile devices and disable connectivity adequately mitigates additional

Explanation
The BEST response to an IT manager’s statement that the risk associated with the use of mobile devices in an organizational setting is the same as for any other device is that replication of privileged access and the greater likelihood of physical loss increases risk levels. Mobile devices pose unique risks to an organization due to their portability, connectivity, and functionality. Mobile devices may store or access sensitive data or systems that require privileged access, which can be compromised if the device is lost, stolen, or hacked. Mobile devices also have a higher chance of being misplaced or taken by unauthorized parties than other devices.

Q37. Which of the following contains the essential elements of effective processes and describes an improvement path considering quality and effectiveness?

Capability maturity model integration

Balanced scorecard

60 270042009

COBIT 5

Explanation
The document that contains the essential elements of effective processes and describes an improvement path considering quality and effectiveness is Capability Maturity Model Integration (CMMI). This is because CMMI is a framework that defines five levels of process maturity, from initial to optimized, and provides best practices and guidelines for improving the quality and effectiveness of processes across different domains, such as software development, service delivery, or cybersecurity. The other options are not documents that contain the essential elements of effective processes and describe an improvement path considering quality and effectiveness, but rather different types of documents or tools that provide guidance or recommendations for implementing policies or controls, such as Balanced Scorecard (B), ISO 27004:2009 C, or COBIT 5 (D).

Q38. Cyber threat intelligence aims to research and analyze trends and technical developments in which of the following areas?

Cybersecurity risk scenarios

Cybercrime, hacktism. and espionage

Cybersecurity operations management

Industry-specific security regulator

Explanation
Cyber threat intelligence aims to research and analyze trends and technical developments in the areas of cybercrime, hacktivism, and espionage. These are the main sources of malicious cyber activities that pose risks to organizations and individuals. Cyber threat intelligence helps to understand the motivations, capabilities, tactics, techniques, and procedures of various threat actors and groups.

Q39. Which of the following is EASIEST for a malicious attacker to detect?

Use of insufficient cryptography

Insecure storage of sensitive data

Susceptibility to reverse engineering

Ability to tamper with mobile code

Explanation
The EASIEST thing for a malicious attacker to detect is the susceptibility to reverse engineering. Reverse engineering is the process of analyzing the code or functionality of an application to understand its structure, logic, or design. Reverse engineering can be used by attackers to discover vulnerabilities, bypass security mechanisms, or modify the application’s behavior. Mobile applications are often susceptible to reverse engineering because they are distributed in binary form and can be easily decompiled or disassembled.

Q40. Which of the following is a feature of a stateful inspection firewall?

It tracks the destination IP address of each packet that leaves the organization’s internal network.

It is capable of detecting and blocking sophisticated attacks

It prevents any attack initiated and originated by an insider.

It translates the MAC address to the destination IP address of each packet that enters the organization’s internal network.

Explanation
A feature of a stateful inspection firewall is that it is capable of detecting and blocking sophisticated attacks. A stateful inspection firewall is a type of firewall that monitors and analyzes the state and context of network traffic. It keeps track of the source, destination, protocol, port, and session information of each packet and compares it with a set of predefined rules. A stateful inspection firewall can detect and block attacks that exploit the logic or behavior of network protocols or applications, such as fragmentation attacks, session hijacking, or application-layer attacks.

Q41. Which of the following is a MAIN benefit of using Security as a Service (SECaaS) providers?

Significant investments and specialized security skills are not required.

Enterprises can use the latest technologies to counter threats that are constantly evolving.

SECaaS providers are compliant with specific security requirements and new regulations.

Available security services from providers are affordable to enterprises of all sizes.

Explanation
A MAIN benefit of using Security as a Service (SECaaS) providers is that significant investments and specialized security skills are not required. SECaaS is a type of cloud service model that provides security solutions and services to customers over the internet. SECaaS providers can offer various security functions such as antivirus, firewall, encryption, identity management, vulnerability scanning, and incident response. By using SECaaS providers, customers can save costs and resources on acquiring, maintaining, and updating security hardware and software. Customers can also leverage the expertise and experience of the SECaaS providers to address their security needs and challenges.

Q42. Which of the following presents the GREATEST challenge to information risk management when outsourcing IT function to a third party?

It is difficult to know the applicable regulatory requirements when data is located on another country.

Providers may be reluctant to share technical delays on the extent of their information protection mechanisms.

Providers may be restricted from providing detailed ^formation on their employees.

It is difficult to determine vendor financial viability to assess their potential inability to meet contract requirements.

Explanation
The GREATEST challenge to information risk management when outsourcing IT function to a third party is that providers may be reluctant to share technical details on the extent of their information protection mechanisms. This is because providers may consider their information protection mechanisms as proprietary or confidential, or may not want to reveal their weaknesses or vulnerabilities. This makes it difficult for the outsourcing organization to assess the level of security and compliance of the provider, and to monitor and audit their performance. The other options are not as challenging as providers being reluctant to share technical details, because they either involve legal or contractual aspects that can be clarified or negotiated before outsourcing (A, D), or human resource aspects that can be verified or validated by the provider C.

Q43. Which of the following is a limitation of intrusion detection systems (IDS)?

Limited evidence on intrusive activity

Application-level vulnerabilities

Lack of Interface with system tools

Weak passwords for the administration console

Explanation
A limitation of intrusion detection systems (IDS) is that they cannot detect application-level vulnerabilities. An IDS is a tool that monitors network traffic or system activity and alerts on any suspicious or malicious events.
However, an IDS cannot analyze the logic or functionality of applications and identify vulnerabilities such as SQL injection, cross-site scripting, or broken authentication.

Q44. Which process converts extracted information to a format understood by investigators?

Reporting

Ingestion

imaging

Filtering

Explanation
The process that converts extracted information to a format understood by investigators is reporting. This is because reporting is a technique that involves presenting and communicating the results and findings of an investigation in a clear, concise, and accurate manner, using appropriate formats, such as tables, charts, graphs, etc. Reporting helps to convey the meaning and significance of the extracted information to the investigators, as well as other stakeholders, such as management, auditors, regulators, etc. The other options are not processes that convert extracted information to a format understood by investigators, but rather different techniques that are related to information extraction or analysis, such as ingestion (B), imaging C, or filtering (D).

Q45. Which of the following is the MOST important step to determine the risks posed to an organization by social media?

Review costs related to the organization’s social media outages.

Review cybersecurity insurance requirements for the organization s social media.

Review the disaster recovery strategy for the organization’s social media.

Review access control processes for the organization’s social media accounts.

Explanation
The MOST important step to determine the risks posed to an organization by social media is to review access control processes for the organization’s social media accounts. This is because access control processes help to ensure that only authorized users can access, modify, or share the organization’s social media accounts and content, and prevent unauthorized or malicious access or disclosure of sensitive or confidential information.
Access control processes also help to protect the organization’s reputation and brand image from being compromised or damaged by unauthorized or inappropriate social media posts. The other options are not as important as reviewing access control processes for the organization’s social media accounts, because they either relate to costs (A), insurance (B), or recovery C aspects that are not directly related to the risks posed by social media.

Q46. Which of the following provides the GREATEST assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss?

Backups of information are regularly tested.

Data backups are available onsite for recovery.

The recovery plan is executed during or after an event

full data backup is performed daily.

Explanation
The feature that provides the GREATEST assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss is that backups of information are regularly tested. This is because testing backups helps to ensure that they are valid, complete, and usable, and that they can be restored within the expected time frame and without errors or corruption. Testing backups also helps to identify and resolve any issues or problems with the backup process, media, or software. The other options are not features that provide the greatest assurance that data can be recovered and restored in a timely manner in the event of data loss, but rather different aspects or factors that affect the backup process, such as availability (B), execution C, or frequency (D) of backups.

Q47. he MOST significant limitation of vulnerability scanning is the fact that modern scanners only detect:

common vulnerabilities.

unknown vulnerabilities.

known vulnerabilities.

zero-day vulnerabilities.

Explanation
The MOST significant limitation of vulnerability scanning is the fact that modern scanners only detect known vulnerabilities. This is because vulnerability scanners rely on databases or repositories of known vulnerabilities, such as CVE (Common Vulnerabilities and Exposures), to compare and identify the weaknesses or flaws in systems or applications. Vulnerability scanners cannot detect unknown vulnerabilities, such as zero-day vulnerabilities, that have not been reported or disclosed yet, and may be exploited by attackers before they are patched or fixed. The other options are not the most significant limitation of vulnerability scanning, because they either involve detecting common (A), unknown (B), or zero-day (D) vulnerabilities, which are not the capabilities or limitations of modern scanners.

Q48. Which of the following BIST enables continuous identification and mitigation of security threats to an organization?

demit/ and access management (1AM)

Security operations center (SOC)

Security training and awareness

Security information and event management (SEM)

Explanation
A security operations center (SOC) is a centralized unit that monitors, detects, analyzes, and responds to cyber threats and incidents in real time. A SOC enables continuous identification and mitigation of security threats to an organization by using various tools, processes, and expertise.

Q49. Which intrusion detection system component is responsible for collecting data in the form of network packets, log files, or system call traces?

Packet filters

Analyzers

Administration modules

Sensors

Explanation
The intrusion detection system component that is responsible for collecting data in the form of network packets, log files, or system call traces is sensors. This is because sensors are components of an intrusion detection system that are deployed on various locations or points of the network or system, such as routers, switches, servers, etc., and that capture and collect data from the network traffic or system activities. Sensors then forward the collected data to another component of the intrusion detection system, such as analyzers, for further processing and analysis. The other options are not components of an intrusion detection system that are responsible for collecting data in the form of network packets, log files, or system call traces, but rather different components or techniques that are related to intrusion detection or prevention, such as packet filters (A), analyzers (B), or administration modules C.

Q50. Which type of tools look for anomalies in user behavior?

Rootkit detection tools

Trend/variance-detection tools

Audit reduction tools

Attack-signature-detection tools

Explanation
Trend/variance-detection tools are tools that look for anomalies in user behavior. These tools use statistical methods to establish a baseline of normal user activity and then compare it with current or historical data to identify deviations or outliers. These tools can help to detect unauthorized access, fraud, insider threats, or other malicious activities.

Q51. Within the NIST core cybersecurity framework, which function is associated with using organizational understanding to minimize risk to systems, assets, and data?

Detect

Identify

Recover

Respond

Explanation
Within the NIST core cybersecurity framework, the identify function is associated with using organizational understanding to minimize risk to systems, assets, and data. This is because the identify function helps organizations to develop an organizational understanding of their cybersecurity risk management posture, as well as the threats, vulnerabilities, and impacts that could affect their business objectives. The other functions are not directly related to using organizational understanding, but rather focus on detecting (A), recovering C, or responding (D) to cybersecurity events.

Q52. Strong data loss prevention (DLP) solutions help protect information in which of the following states?

At rest, in transit and in use

Operating system application and database levels

Public restricted, and confidential

Data sent, data received, and data deleted

Explanation
Strong data loss prevention (DLP) solutions help protect information in all states: at rest, in transit and in use.
This is because DLP solutions are technologies or tools that help to prevent unauthorized or accidental disclosure, modification, or deletion of sensitive or confidential information by users or applications. DLP solutions help to protect information in all states, by applying different types of controls or mechanisms depending on the state of the information. For example, DLP solutions can protect information at rest by encrypting or masking the data stored on devices or media; protect information in transit by inspecting or filtering the data transmitted over networks or channels; and protect information in use by restricting or monitoring the access or usage of the data by users or applications. The other options are not states that strong data loss prevention (DLP) solutions help protect information in, but rather different levels (B), classifications C, or actions (D) that are related to information security.

Q53. The “recover” function of the NISI cybersecurity framework is concerned with:

planning for resilience and timely repair of compromised capacities and service.

identifying critical data to be recovered m case of a security incident.

taking appropriate action to contain and eradicate a security incident.

allocating costs incurred as part of the implementation of cybersecurity measures.

Explanation
The “recover” function of the NIST cybersecurity framework is concerned with planning for resilience and timely repair of compromised capacities and service. This is because the recover function helps organizations to restore normal operations as quickly as possible after a cybersecurity incident, while also learning from the incident and improving their security posture. The other options are not part of the recover function, but rather belong to the identify (B), respond C, or protect (D) functions.

Q54. Which of the following is the GREATEST risk pertaining to sensitive data leakage when users set mobile devices to “always on” mode?

An adversary can predict a user’s login credentials.

Mobile connectivity could be severely weakened.

A user’s behavior pattern can be predicted.

Authorization tokens could be exploited.

Explanation
The GREATEST risk pertaining to sensitive data leakage when users set mobile devices to “always on” mode is that authorization tokens could be exploited. Authorization tokens are pieces of data that are used to authenticate users and grant them access to certain resources or services. Authorization tokens are often stored on mobile devices to enable seamless and convenient access without requiring users to enter their credentials repeatedly. However, if users set their mobile devices to “always on” mode, they increase the risk of losing their devices or having them stolen by attackers. Attackers can then access the authorization tokens stored on the devices and use them to impersonate the users or access their sensitive data.

Q55. Which of the following is a client-server program that opens a secure, encrypted command-line shell session from the Internet for remote logon?

VPN

IPsec

SSH

SFTP

Explanation
The correct answer is C. SSH.
SSH stands for Secure Shell, a client-server program that opens a secure, encrypted command-line shell session from the Internet for remote logon. SSH allows users to remotely access and execute commands on a server without exposing their credentials or data to eavesdropping, tampering or replay attacks. SSH also supports secure file transfer protocols such as SFTP and SCP1.
VPN stands for Virtual Private Network, a technology that creates a secure, encrypted tunnel between two or more devices over a public network such as the Internet. VPN allows users to access resources on a remote network as if they were physically connected to it, while protecting their privacy and identity2.
IPsec stands for Internet Protocol Security, a set of protocols that provides security at the network layer of the Internet. IPsec supports two modes: transport mode and tunnel mode. Transport mode encrypts only the payload of each packet, while tunnel mode encrypts the entire packet, including the header. IPsec can be used to secure VPN connections, as well as other applications that require data confidentiality, integrity and authentication3.
SFTP stands for Secure File Transfer Protocol, a protocol that uses SSH to securely transfer files between a client and a server over a network. SFTP provides encryption, authentication and compression features to ensure the security and reliability of file transfers.
1: SSH (Secure Shell) 2: What is a VPN? How It Works, Types of VPN | Kaspersky 3: IPsec – Wikipedia :
[SFTP – Wikipedia]

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