Use Free JN0-336 Exam Questions that Stimulates Actual EXAM [Q23-Q43]

Use Free JN0-336 Exam Questions that Stimulates Actual EXAM [Q23-Q43]

November 14, 2026 latestexam 0 Comments

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Use Free JN0-336 Exam Questions that Stimulates Actual EXAM

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Juniper JN0-336 Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Weight	Objectives
UTM (Unified Threat Management)	15%	– Antispam – Antivirus – Web Filtering – Content Filtering
IPsec VPNs	25%	– VPN High Availability – Policy-Based VPNs – IKE Phase 1 and Phase 2 – VPN Troubleshooting – Route-Based VPNs
Security Policy	25%	– Policy Troubleshooting – Policy Components and Structure – Policy Scheduling – Policy Logging
Screen Options	15%	– Custom Screen Options – Screen Options Configuration – Attack Detection and Mitigation
High Availability Clustering	20%	– Configuration and Troubleshooting – Chassis Cluster Architecture – Control and Data Plane Synchronization – Failover Behavior

NEW QUESTION 23
Which protocol does the SRX Series Firewall use to communicate with a Windows domain controller?

SSH

LDAP

DNS

NETCONF

The correct answer is B. LDAP. In Juniper identity-aware firewall deployments, the SRX Series Firewall integrates with Microsoft Active Directory so that user and group information can be used in security policy decisions. Juniper’s Active Directory identity-source documentation states that the LDAP protocol helps identify the groups to which users belong, and that username and group information are queried from the LDAP service running on the Active Directory domain controller. It also explains that the device uses Lightweight Directory Access Protocol to obtain user and group information required for Active Directory identity-source operation.
Option A, SSH, is wrong because SSH is a device management protocol, not the protocol SRX uses to query Active Directory user/group membership. Option C, DNS, is wrong because DNS can resolve names but does not provide Active Directory group mapping to the firewall. Option D, NETCONF, is wrong because NETCONF is used for network device configuration and automation, not Windows domain-controller identity queries. In a complete identity-aware firewall workflow, SRX may also use WMI/DCOM-related mechanisms to read Windows event-log data, but among the available protocol choices, LDAP is the correct answer because it is the directory protocol used to query user and group information. Reference topics: Active Directory identity source, LDAP, domain controller communication, user and group mapping.

NEW QUESTION 24
What are two causes that end the processing of rules in IDP? (Choose two.)

when a rule is matched in the rule base with an action of close

when a terminal rule is matched in the rule base

when any rule is matched in the exempt rule base

when a rule is matched in the rule base with an action of ignore

The correct answers are B and D. A terminal rule is specifically designed to stop further rule evaluation.
Juniper states that the IDP rule-matching algorithm normally checks traffic against all matching rules in the rulebase, but when a terminal rule matches the source, destination, zones, and application, IDP does not continue to check subsequent rules for that same traffic. Juniper also warns that traffic matching a terminal rule is not compared to later rules even if it does not match the attack object inside that terminal rule.
Option D is also correct because the Ignore Connection action stops scanning traffic for the rest of the connection if an attack match is found. Juniper defines Ignore Connection as disabling the rulebase for that specific connection after a match. Option A is wrong because a close action closes the connection by sending reset behavior, but it is not the rule-processing control mechanism being tested. Option C is a trap: the exempt rulebase is used to suppress known false positives after an IPS rule match, but the two direct mechanisms that end IDP rule processing are terminal rule matching and ignore connection. Reference topics: IDP rulebases, terminal rules, Ignore Connection action, rule-matching algorithm, false-positive exemption.

NEW QUESTION 25
Which two statements are true about the vSRX? (Choose two.)

It does not have VMXNET3 vNIC support.

It has VMXNET3 vNIC support.

UNIX is the base OS.

Linux is the base OS.

NEW QUESTION 26
Which SRX Series device configuration setting must be configured first to use Juniper ATP Cloud?

Start up the anti-malware service on the SRX Series device.

Apply the firewall rules on the SRX Series device.

Enable connectivity between the SRX Series device and Juniper ATP Cloud.

Configure the anti-malware policies on the SRX Series device.

The correct answer is C. Enable connectivity between the SRX Series device and Juniper ATP Cloud. Juniper ATP Cloud cannot inspect files, receive verdicts, or apply cloud-based malware intelligence until the SRX is enrolled and has a working secure connection to the ATP Cloud service. Juniper states that SRX enrollment establishes a secure connection between the SRX Series Firewall and the Juniper ATP Cloud server, downloads and installs certificate authorities, creates local certificates, enrolls them with the cloud server, and establishes the secure cloud connection.
Option A is not the first required configuration setting because the anti-malware service depends on successful cloud onboarding and connectivity. Option B is premature because firewall/security policies can reference malware inspection only after the device is properly connected and enrolled. Option D is also later in the workflow; anti-malware policies define how files are inspected and what action is taken, but those policies are useless if the SRX cannot communicate with ATP Cloud. Juniper also notes that ATP Cloud requires both the Routing Engine and Packet Forwarding Engine to reach the Internet, and DNS must resolve the cloud URL. Reference topics: ATP Cloud onboarding, SRX enrollment, advanced anti-malware connection, secure cloud connectivity, anti-malware policy deployment.

NEW QUESTION 27
Which statement defines the function of an Application Layer Gateway (ALG)?

The ALG uses software processes for permitting or disallowing specific IP address ranges.

The ALG uses software that is used by a single TCP session using the same port numbers as the application.

The ALG contains protocols that use one application session for each TCP session.

The ALG uses software processes for managing specific protocols.

The statement that defines the function of an Application Layer Gateway (ALG) is: The ALG uses software processes for managing specific protocols. An ALG is a security component that operates at the application layer (layer 7) of the OSI model and handles data associated with certain application protocols, such as SIP, FTP, RTSP, etc. An ALG acts as a proxy or intermediary between the client and the server applications and performs various functions, such as address and port translation, resource allocation, application response control, and synchronization of data and control traffic. An ALG can also inspect and modify the application payload to enable firewall or NAT traversal, prevent spoofing or DoS attacks, or enforce granular security policies based on application-specific commands. Reference: = Application-level gateway – Wikipedia, What Is an Application Layer Gateway (ALG)? | F5, What is ALG
** Application Layer Gateway | 3CX

NEW QUESTION 28
On an SRX5800, which port is used for chassis cluster out-of-band management?

ge-0/0/0

fxp1

user-defined

Txp0

NEW QUESTION 29
You are asked to configure a cluster between SRX1 and SRX2.
Which two commands must be used to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)

user@SRX2# set chassis cluster cluster-id 0 node 1

user@SRX1 > set chassis cluster cluster-id 1 node 0

user@SRX2 > set chassis cluster cluster-id 1 node 1

user@SRX1# set chassis cluster cluster-id 0 node 2

The correct answers are B and C. To form an SRX chassis cluster, both devices must be assigned the same cluster ID and different node IDs. Juniper states that the cluster ID identifies the cluster, while the node ID identifies the individual node within that cluster. A valid two-node SRX chassis cluster uses node 0 on one chassis and node 1 on the other chassis. Juniper’s example shows the operational-mode commands as set chassis cluster cluster-id 1 node 0 reboot on the first device and set chassis cluster cluster-id 1 node 1 reboot on the second device.
Option A is wrong because cluster-id 0 disables clustering rather than forming a cluster. It also shows configuration-mode prompt #, while this chassis cluster node assignment is performed from operational mode.
Option D is doubly wrong: cluster-id 0 disables clustering, and node 2 is invalid because SRX chassis cluster node IDs are limited to 0 and 1. The exam options omit the reboot keyword, but the only logically valid pair is still SRX1 as node 0 and SRX2 as node 1 under the same nonzero cluster ID. Reference topics: HA Clustering, chassis cluster ID, node ID, operational-mode cluster enablement.

NEW QUESTION 30
Which two types of SSL proxy are available on SRX Series devices? (Choose two.)

Web proxy

client-protection

server-protection

DNS proxy

Based on SSL proxy is a feature that allows SRX Series devices to decrypt and inspect SSL/TLS traffic for security purposes.
According to SRX Series devices support two types of SSL proxy:
Client-protection SSL proxy also known as forward proxy – The SRX Series device resides between the internal client and outside server. It decrypts and inspects traffic from internal users to the web.
Server-protection SSL proxy also known as reverse proxy – The SRX Series device resides between outside clients and internal servers. It decrypts and inspects traffic from web users to internal servers.

NEW QUESTION 31
Exhibit

Using the information from the exhibit, which statement is correct?

Redundancy group 1 is in an ineligible state.

Node1 is the active node for the control plane

There are no issues with the cluster.

Redundancy group 0 is in an ineligible state.

NEW QUESTION 32
Which two statements are correct about Juniper ATP Cloud? (Choose two.)

Once the target threshold is met, Juniper ATP Cloud continues looking for threats from 0 to 5 minutes.

Once the target threshold is met, Juniper ATP Cloud continues looking for threats levels range from 0 to 10 minutes.

The threat levels range from 0-10.

The threat levels range from 0-100.

In many threat intelligence and evaluation systems, including Juniper ATP Cloud, the threat levels are often scored on a scale to provide a quick reference of the potential risk associated with a threat. A common range for these threat levels is from 0 to 10, with 0 representing minimal or no threat and 10 representing a severe threat.
Alternatively, some systems may use a more granular scoring system ranging from 0 to 100, providing a more nuanced assessment of threat levels. This range allows for finer differentiation between the levels of threat severity.

NEW QUESTION 33
Which two statements are correct about chassis clustering? (Choose two.)

The node ID value ranges from 1 to 255.

The node ID is used to identify each device in the chassis cluster.

A system reboot is required to activate changes to the cluster.

The cluster ID is used to identify each device in the chassis cluster.

In chassis clustering, the node ID is indeed used to uniquely identify each device within the cluster. This allows for individual addressing and management of devices within the cluster configuration, which is crucial for operations and maintenance.
Typically, activating changes that involve chassis clustering configuration, such as setting or changing the node ID or forming a new cluster, requires a reboot of the devices. This ensures that all configuration changes are properly applied and that the devices can synchronize their states as part of the cluster.

NEW QUESTION 34
Click the Exhibit button.

You are validating the configuration template for device access. The commands in the exhibit have been entered to secure IP access to an SRX Series device.
Referring to the exhibit, which two statements are true? (Choose two.)

The device manager can access the device from 192.168.11.248.

The loopback interface blocks invalid traffic on its entry into the device.

The loopback interface blocks invalid traffic on its exit from the device.

The device manager can access the device from 10.253.1.2.

The commands in the exhibit show how to configure a firewall filter on the loopback interface (lo0) of an SRX Series device. The loopback interface is a gateway for all the control traffic that enters the Routing Engine of the device. The firewall filter can be used to monitor and protect this control traffic from various attacks. Two statements that are true based on the exhibit are:
The loopback interface blocks invalid traffic on its entry into the device: The firewall filter applied on lo0 has a term that matches any packet with an invalid source address (such as 0.0.0.0/8 or 127.0.0.0/8) and discards it. This prevents spoofing or DoS attacks using invalid source addresses. The device manager can access the device from 10.253.1.2: The firewall filter applied on lo0 has a term that matches any packet with a source address of 10.253.1.2 and accepts it. This allows the device manager to access the device from this IP address using protocols such as SSH, Telnet, HTTP, or HTTPS.
Reference: = Firewall Filter Support on Loopback Interface, [MX/SRX] The behavior of firewall filters that are applied on the loopback interfaces in virtual routers

NEW QUESTION 35
You need to secure communications from a mobile command center which uses a 5G mobile ISP behind CGNAT to an SRX Series Firewall at headquarters.
Which two actions should be performed on the SRX Series Firewall in this scenario? (Choose two.)

Configure the IPsec VPN to use NAT-T.

Configure the IPsec VPN to use IKEv1 aggressive mode.

Configure the IPsec VPN to use IKEv2 aggressive mode.

Configure the IPsec VPN to use DPD.

The correct answers are A and D. A mobile command center using a 5G ISP behind CGNAT is operating behind dynamic address translation. For IPsec to work reliably through NAT, the SRX must support NAT Traversal, which encapsulates IKE and ESP traffic in UDP/4500 after NAT is detected. Juniper states that NAT-T is used when NAT devices exist in the datapath and that NAT keepalives are required because NAT devices age out UDP translations. Juniper’s Security Director VPN workflow also specifically says to enable NAT-T when the dynamic endpoint is behind a NAT device.
DPD is also required because mobile and carrier-grade NAT connections can disappear, roam, or become stale without a clean tunnel teardown. Juniper defines Dead Peer Detection as the method used by IPsec peers to verify whether the remote peer is still present and responsive by sending encrypted IKE notification payloads and waiting for acknowledgements. Option B is not the best answer because IKEv1 aggressive mode is weaker and does not provide identity protection; Juniper also notes that aggressive mode applies only to IKEv1. Option C is invalid because IKEv2 aggressive mode does not exist. Reference topics: IPsec VPN, NAT-T, CGNAT, dynamic endpoints, DPD, IKE peer availability.

NEW QUESTION 36
Which action will the SRX Series device take if traffic matches the custom attack object shown in the exhibit?

the action taken is defined in the IDP policy that includes this attack object.

the action taken is defined by the security policy.

The SRX Series device will reject the traffic.

The SRX series device will drop the traffic.

The correct answer is A. the action taken is defined in the IDP policy that includes this attack object. The exhibit defines a custom attack object named BGP-DEFEND under the security idp custom-attack hierarchy.
The custom object includes metadata such as recommended-action drop, severity critical, and signature match conditions such as BGP update AS-path context and pattern 65501. However, an attack object by itself does not determine the final enforcement behavior. The attack object defines what to match; the IDP policy rule that references the object defines what action to take when that match occurs. Juniper describes attack objects as objects used inside IDP rules to identify malicious activity, while IDP rules include rule actions such as drop-packet, drop-connection, close-client, close-server, recommended, and others.
Option B is wrong because the firewall security policy enables IDP inspection by applying an IDP policy, but the IDP action is not selected directly by the normal security policy. Options C and D are too absolute. Even though the custom object shows recommended-action drop, that is only used if the IDP rule action invokes recommended behavior. Without seeing the IDP policy rule action, you cannot conclude reject or drop.
Reference topics: IDP custom attack objects, IDP policy rule actions, recommended action, signature-based attack matching.

NEW QUESTION 37
You need to set up a forward proxy on your SRX Series device.
In this scenario, which two statements are correct? (Choose two.)

The forward proxy uses the managed SRX as a trusted certificate authority (CA).

The forward proxy forwards the server certificate.

The forward proxy looks like a client to the servers to which it communicates.

The forward proxy uses Encrypted Traffic Insights to monitor traffic.

The correct answers are A and C. In SSL forward proxy, the SRX sits between internal clients and external SSL/TLS servers. Juniper’s SSL proxy configuration documentation shows that a forward proxy profile is created when root-ca is configured and server-certificate is not configured. This root CA is used by the SRX to generate substitute certificates for intercepted SSL sessions, so internal clients must trust the CA used by the firewall. Juniper’s procedure specifically includes generating or loading a local certificate and applying it as the root-ca in the SSL proxy profile.
Option C is also correct because forward proxy terminates the client-side SSL session and establishes a separate SSL session toward the destination server. Juniper states that the SSL proxy acts as an SSL server to the client and establishes a new SSL session to the server; from the server’s perspective, the SRX is the SSL client. Option B is wrong because forward proxy intercepts the server certificate and creates a substitute certificate; forwarding the actual server certificate unchanged is associated with reverse proxy behavior.
Option D is wrong because Encrypted Traffic Insights is not the required forward-proxy mechanism here.
Reference topics: SSL Proxy, SSL forward proxy, root CA, client protection, certificate interception.

NEW QUESTION 38
Your JIMS server is unable to view event logs.
Which two actions would you take to solve this issue? (Choose two.)

Enable the correct host-inbound-traffic rules on the SRX Series devices.

Enable remote event log management within Windows Firewall on the necessary Exchange servers.

Enable remote event log management within Windows Firewall on the necessary domain controllers.

Enable remote event log management within Windows Firewall on the JIMS server.

JIMS needs to access the event logs from domain controllers to function properly, as it relies on these logs to track user and device activity across the network. If the Windows Firewall on the domain controllers is blocking this access, enabling remote event log management will allow JIMS to retrieve the necessary information.
While it’s less common, ensuring that any firewall settings on the JIMS server itself do not block outgoing requests or responses related to event log management is also crucial. This ensures that JIMS can send out requests and receive responses without any hindrance from its own firewall.

NEW QUESTION 39
Which two statements about unified security policies are correct? (Choose two.)

Unified security policies require an advanced feature license.

Unified security policies are evaluated after global security policies.

Traffic can initially match multiple unified security policies.

APPID results are used to determine the final security policy

NEW QUESTION 40
Which three algorithms are used to encrypt IP packets? (Choose three.)

Data Encryption Standard (DES)

Secure Hash Algorithm (SHA) – 1

Message Digest 5 (MD5)

Triple Data Encryption Standard (3DES)

Advanced Encryption Standard (AES)

The correct answers are A, D, and E. In IPsec VPN terminology, DES, 3DES, and AES are encryption algorithms used to provide confidentiality for protected IP traffic. Juniper’s IPsec material identifies AES, DES, and Triple DES/3DES as IPsec encryption standards, while separating them from authentication hash algorithms such as MD5, SHA-1, and SHA-2. This distinction matters heavily in JNCIS-SEC because IPsec proposals contain different cryptographic functions: encryption protects packet confidentiality, while authentication/hash algorithms validate integrity and origin.
Option B, SHA-1, is incorrect because SHA-1 is a hashing/authentication algorithm, not an encryption algorithm. It produces a message digest used for integrity checking and authentication, commonly as an HMAC variant. Option C, MD5, is also incorrect for the same reason: MD5 is a message-digest algorithm used for authentication/integrity, not for encrypting payload data. AES is the modern preferred encryption family because it is cryptographically stronger than DES and 3DES at comparable key strengths, while DES and 3DES remain historically recognized IPsec encryption algorithms. Reference topics: IPsec VPN, IPsec proposals, encryption algorithms, authentication algorithms, DES, 3DES, AES, SHA, and MD5.

NEW QUESTION 41
Which statement is correct about Active Directory as an identity source for identity-aware security policies?

It supports a maximum of two domains.

It supports logical systems.

It supports 20 Active Directory servers per domain.

It tracks non-Windows Active Directory users.

The correct answer is A. It supports a maximum of two domains. Juniper’s Active Directory identity-source configuration guidance states that an SRX Series Firewall using the integrated user firewall/Active Directory identity source can be configured for a maximum of two domains. That is the exact limit relevant to this question. The same Juniper configuration page separately states that a maximum of 10 domain controllers can be configured, which directly eliminates option C because the supported figure is not 20 Active Directory servers per domain.
Option B is wrong because Active Directory identity source is not presented as a logical-systems feature in the JNCIS-SEC identity-aware firewall context. Option D is wrong because the primary Active Directory mechanism reads Windows domain controller event logs and uses WMI/DCOM plus LDAP to build IP-to- user and group mappings. Juniper describes the SRX as reading and monitoring the Windows event log on the domain controller, then using LDAP to obtain user/group information. Non-domain or non-Windows cases typically require alternate authentication behavior such as captive portal, not native Active Directory event- log tracking.
Reference topics: Identity-Aware Security Policies, Active Directory identity source, integrated user firewall, domain limits, domain controllers, WMIC, LDAP mapping.

NEW QUESTION 42
You want to set up JSA to collect network traffic flows from network devices on your network.
Which two statements are correct when performing this task? (Choose two.)

BGP FlowSpec is used to collect traffic flows from Junos OS devices.

Statistical sampling increases processor utilization

Statistical sampling decreases event correlation accuracy.

Superflows reduce traffic licensing requirements.

Statistical sampling involves collecting a representative subset of data rather than examining all traffic.
While this method decreases processor utilization by reducing the volume of data that must be analyzed and stored, it can also lead to decreased accuracy in event correlation because not all events are captured.
Superflows in JSA are aggregated flow records that represent summaries of multiple flow records. This aggregation reduces the number of flows that need to be processed and stored, which can help in managing licensing requirements related to the volume of traffic being analyzed, especially in environments with high traffic volumes.

NEW QUESTION 43
Which two steps are necessary to prepare the Active Directory domain for a JIMS installation? (Choose two.)

Create two limited access user accounts.

Create three limited access user accounts.

Add one full access user account to Active Directory groups.

Add limited access user accounts to Active Directory groups.

The correct answers are A and D. Preparing Active Directory for JIMS requires creating limited-permission service accounts and assigning those accounts to the required Active Directory groups. Juniper’s JIMS deployment guidance states that you must create service accounts so JIMS can read from the defined directory services and identity producers; if PC probing is used, a service account is also required for that function. The same JIMS documentation includes a section named Configure Limited-Permission User Accounts, followed by Add Limited Permission User Accounts to Active Directory Groups.
Option A is correct because the JIMS preparation workflow commonly uses limited-permission accounts for event log access and PC probe access. Juniper identifies accounts such as JIMS-EventLogRemoteAccess and JIMS-PC-Probe in the Active Directory group-membership procedure. Option D is correct because those limited accounts must be added to the proper AD groups, including Event Log Readers and the groups required for remote management or PC probe operation.
Option B is wrong because the tested preparation requirement is not three limited-access accounts. Option C is wrong because JIMS should not be prepared by adding a broad full-access account; the course objective is least-privilege identity collection. Reference topics: JIMS, Active Directory preparation, limited-permission service accounts, Event Log Readers, PC probe account.

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