[Aug 15, 2026] Pass ISC CISSP Exam Info and Free Practice Test [Q592-Q614]

[Aug 15, 2026] Pass ISC CISSP Exam Info and Free Practice Test [Q592-Q614]

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[Aug 15, 2026] Pass ISC CISSP Exam Info and Free Practice Test

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ISC CISSP Exam Syllabus Topics:

Section	Weight	Objectives
Communication and Network Security	13%	– Network Architecture and Design – Secure Network Components
Security Operations	13%	– Disaster Recovery and Business Continuity – Incident Response
Security and Risk Management	14%	– Security Governance Principles – Compliance and Legal Requirements – Professional Ethics
Asset Security	10%	– Data Lifecycle Management – Information and Asset Classification
Software Development Security	11%	– Secure Software Development Lifecycle (SDLC) – Application Security Controls
Security Architecture and Engineering	13%	– Secure Design Principles – Security Models and Frameworks
Identity and Access Management (IAM)	13%	– Authentication and Authorization – Identity Lifecycle Management
Security Assessment and Testing	12%	– Audit Processes – Security Testing Methods

Q592. Which of the following is the MOST effective method of mitigating data theft from an active user workstation?

Implement full-disk encryption

Enable multifactor authentication

Deploy file integrity checkers

Disable use of portable devices

Q593. Which of the following is the BEST method a security practitioner can use to ensure that systems and sub-system gracefully handle invalid input?

Negative testing

Integration testing

Unit testing

Acceptance testing

Q594. Which of the following is most concerned with personnel security?

Management controls

Operational controls

Technical controls

Human resources controls.

Personnel security always have to deal more with Operational controls,
Operational controls provide the guidelines and the correct procedures to implement the different operations. Management controls are usually used only by managers. Human resources and Technical Controls are not related to personal security as the question states. See the different control definitions in your CISSP documentation.

Q595. A persistent collection of data items that form relations among each
other is called a:

Schema

Database management system (DBMS)

Database

Data description language (DDL)

For a database to be viable, the data items must be stored on nonvolatile media and be protected from unauthorized modification. For answer a, a DBMS provides access to the items in the database and maintains the information in the database. *The Data description language (DDL) provides the means to define the database and schema is the description of the database.

Q596. There are basic goals of Cryptography. Which of the following most benefits from the process of encryption?

Confidentiality

Authentication

Integrity

Non-Repudiation

Encryption would be one of your last layer within Defense in Depth. When we
encrypt files, for the most part they are useless to anyone (they can’t get access to the plaintext)
except the person possessing the encryption key to decrypt the files.
With strong encryption we can assume that they are safe so long as the encryption key is secured.
This process provides confidentiality that the data has not been divulged, even if captured
(Sniffed) or otherwise stolen while in transit or in storage.
Consider this mnemonic to help you remember the basic cryptographic goals:
P: Privacy (or confidentiality)
A: Authentication
I: Integrity
N: Non-repudiation
The following answers are incorrect:
Authentication: Authentication isn’t insured by encryption alone. Incorrect.
Integrity: Encryption doesn’t insure integrity. Hashing algorithms would be used instead. Sorry.
Incorrect answer.
Non-repudiation: Sorry, encryption alone doesn’t insure non-repudiation. You would need to have
a valid Public Key Infrastructure (PKI) in place along with the proper processes.
The following reference(s) was used to create this question:
Gregg, Michael; Haines, Billy (2012-02-16). CASP: CompTIA Advanced Security Practitioner
Study Guide Authorized Courseware: Exam CAS-001 (p. 3). Wiley. Kindle Edition.

Q597. Which of the following BEST describes a function relying on a shared secret key that is used along with a hashing algorithm to verify the integrity of the communication content as well as the sender?

Message Authentication Code – MAC

PAM – Pluggable Authentication Module

NAM – Negative Acknowledgement Message

Digital Signature Certificate

Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:
Message Authentication Code (MAC) is a keyed cryptographic hash function that is used for data integrity and data origin authentication.
Incorrect Answers:
B: A pluggable authentication module (PAM) is used to integrate multiple low-level authentication schemes into a high-level application programming interface (API).
C: A Negative Acknowledgement Message is a protocol message that is sent in many communications protocols to negatively acknowledge or reject a previously received message, or to show some kind of error.
D: Digital Signature Certificate is an invalid term. Digital signatures and digital certificates are two different security measures.
References:
Harris, Shon, All In One CISSP Exam Guide, 6th Edition, McGraw-Hill, 2013, pp. 832
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Pluggable_authentication_module
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/NAK_(protocol_message)
http://searchsecurity.techtarget.com/answer/The-difference-between-a-digital-signature-and-digital- certificate

Q598. All of the following can be considered essential business functions that should be identified when creating a Business Impact Analysis (BIA) except one. Which of the following would not be considered an essential element of the BIA but an important topic to include within the BCP plan:

IT Network Support

Accounting

Public Relations

Purchasing

Public Relations, although important to a company, is not listed as an essential
business function that should be identified and have loss criteria developed for.
All other entries are considered essential and should be identified and have loss criteria
developed.
Source: HARRIS, Shon, All-In-One CISSP Certification Exam Guide, McGraw-Hill/Osborne, 2002,
chapter 9: Disaster Recovery and Business continuity (page 598).

Q599. The primary goal of the TLS Protocol is to provide:

Privacy and data integrity between two communicating applications

Authentication and data integrity between two communicating
applications

Privacy and authentication between two communicating
applications

Privacy, authentication and data integrity between two
communicating applications

The TLS Protocol is comprised of the TLS Record and Handshake
Protocols. The TLS Record Protocol is layered on top of a transport
protocol such as TCP and provides privacy and reliability to the
communications. The privacy is implemented by encryption using
symmetric key cryptography such as DES or RC4. The secret key is
generated anew for each connection; however, the Record Protocol
can be used without encryption. Integrity is provided through the
use of a keyed Message Authentication Code (MAC) using hash
algorithms such as SHA or MD5.
The TLS Record Protocol is also used to encapsulate a higher-level
protocol such as the TLS Handshake Protocol. This Handshake Protocol
is used by the server and client to authenticate each other. The
authentication can be accomplished using asymmetric key cryptography
such as RSA or DSS. The Handshake Protocol also sets up the
encryption algorithm and cryptographic keys to enable the application
protocol to transmit and receive information.

Q600. What is called the probability that a threat to an information system will materialize?

Threat

Risk

Vulnerability

Hole

Source: KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide:
Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Pages 16, 32.

Q601. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of a “sandbox” in application security?

A production environment used for live customer transactions

An isolated environment used to safely execute and analyze untrusted or suspicious code

A physical enclosure for securing backup tapes

A tool for compressing large log files

A sandbox is an isolated execution environment that allows untrusted or potentially malicious code to run and be analyzed without risking harm to the host system or production network, commonly used in malware analysis and application testing.

Q602. Which one of the following describes a reference monitor?

Access control concept that refers to an abstract machine that mediates all accesses to objects by subjects.

Audit concept that refers to monitoring and recording of all accesses to objects by subjects.

Identification concept that refers to the comparison of material supplied by a user with its reference profile.

Network control concept that distributes the authorization of subject accesses to objects.

A reference monitor is a system component that enforces access controls on an object. Therefore, the reference monitor concept is an abstract machine that mediates all access of subjects to objects -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 262

Q603. How is it possible to extract private keys securely stored on a cryptographic smartcard?

Bluebugging

Focused ion-beam

Bluejacking

Power analysis

The technique that can be used to extract private keys securely stored on a cryptographic smartcard is focused ion-beam. A cryptographic smartcard is a type of smartcard that is used for cryptographic purposes, such as encryption, decryption, authentication, or digital signatures. A cryptographic smartcard contains a microprocessor or a microcontroller that can perform cryptographic operations, as well as a memory that can store cryptographic keys, certificates, or data. A cryptographic smartcard can help to enhance the security and convenience of the cryptographic processes, by providing a portable, tamper-resistant, and user-friendly device that can perform or support the cryptographic processes. However, a cryptographic smartcard can also be vulnerable to various attacks or techniques that aim to extract or compromise the cryptographic keys or data that are securely stored on the smartcard, by exploiting the physical or logical weaknesses or flaws of the smartcard. The technique that can be used to extract private keys securely stored on a cryptographic smartcard is focused ion-beam, which is a type of physical attack or technique that uses a beam of ions, such as gallium or helium, to modify or manipulate the structure or circuitry of the smartcard. Focused ion-beam can be used to extract private keys securely stored on a cryptographic smartcard, by using the beam of ions to cut, drill, or etch the smartcard, and to access or read the memory or the microprocessor of the smartcard, where the private keys are stored. Focused ion-beam can also be used to bypass or disable the security features or mechanisms of the smartcard, such as the sensors, fuses, or shields, that are designed to prevent or detect the physical tampering or modification of the smartcard. Bluebugging, bluejacking, or power analysis are not the techniques that can be used to extract private keys securely stored on a cryptographic smartcard, as they are either more related to the wireless or Bluetooth attacks or techniques, which exploit the wireless or Bluetooth communication or connection of the smartcard, rather than the physical structure or circuitry of the smartcard, or to the side-channel attacks or techniques, which exploit the physical characteristics or behavior of the smartcard, such as the power consumption, electromagnetic radiation, or timing, rather than the physical modification or manipulation of the smartcard. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 5: Cryptography and Symmetric Key Algorithms, page 296; CISSP Official (ISC)2 Practice Tests, Third Edition, Domain 3: Security Engineering, Question 3.12, page 137.

Q604. The Open Web Application Security Project’s (OWASP) Software Assurance Maturity Model (SAMM) allows organizations to implement a flexible software security strategy to measure organizational impact based on what risk management aspect?

Risk tolerance

Risk exception

Risk treatment

Risk response

The OWASP SAMM allows organizations to implement a flexible software security strategy to measure organizational impact based on risk tolerance. Risk tolerance is the level of risk that an organization is willing to accept or endure in pursuit of its objectives. The OWASP SAMM helps organizations to define their risk tolerance level and align their software security activities accordingly. Risk exception is the process of granting a temporary or permanent deviation from a security policy or requirement. Risk treatment is the process of selecting and implementing appropriate measures to modify the risk. Risk response is the process of taking actions to address the risk, such as avoiding, transferring, mitigating, or accepting the risk.

Q605. Which of the following would present the highert annualized loss expectancy (ALE)?

Fire

Earthquake

Windstorm

Flood

Q606. Which of the following is the MOST important consideration when developing a Disaster Recovery Plan (DRP)?

The dynamic reconfiguration of systems

The cost of downtime

A recovery strategy for all business processes

A containment strategy

Q607. Kerberos is vulnerable to replay in which of the following circumstances?

When a private key is compromised within an allotted time window.

When a public key is compromised within an allotted time window.

When a ticket is compromised within an allotted time window.

When the KSD is compromised within an allotted time window.

Replay can be accomplished on Kerberos if the compromised tickets are used within an allotted time window.
The security depends on careful implementation:enforcing limited lifetimes for authentication credentials minimizes the threat of of replayed credentials, the KDC must be physically secured, and it should be hardened, not permitting any non-kerberos activities.
Reference:
Official ISC2 Guide to the CISSP, 2007 Edition, page 184
also see:
KRUTZ, Ronald L. & VINES, Russel D., The CISSP Prep Guide: Mastering the Ten Domains of Computer Security, 2001, John Wiley & Sons, Page 42

Q608. A security professional recommends that a company integrate threat modeling into its Agile development processes. Which of the following BEST describes the benefits of this approach?

Reduce application development costs.

Potential threats are addressed later in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC).

Improve user acceptance of implemented security controls.

Potential threats are addressed earlier in the Software Development Life Cycle (SDLC).

Q609. What is the MOST effective method of testing custom application code?

Negative testing

White box testing

Penetration testing

Black box testing

Q610. What is the PRIMARY consideration when testing industrial control systems (ICS) for security weaknesses?

ICS often do not have availability requirements.

ICS are often isolated and difficult to access.

ICS often run on UNIX operating systems.

ICS are often sensitive to unexpected traffic.

The primary consideration when testing industrial control systems (ICS) for security weaknesses is that ICS are often sensitive to unexpected traffic. ICS are systems that monitor and control physical processes, such as power generation, water distribution, or manufacturing. ICS are often designed for high availability, reliability, and safety, but not necessarily for security. ICS may use legacy protocols, devices, or software that are not compatible with modern security tools or standards. ICS may also have strict timing or performance requirements that could be disrupted by network scanning, penetration testing, or other security activities. Therefore, testing ICS for security weaknesses requires careful planning, coordination, and authorization to avoid causing adverse effects on the ICS operations or safety.

Q611. Which of the following BEST describes the purpose of “patch management”?

To develop new software features

To systematically identify, test, and deploy updates that address known vulnerabilities and bugs in software and systems

To back up data before a system upgrade

To monitor network traffic for anomalies

Patch management is the process of identifying available patches, testing them for compatibility and stability, and deploying them in a controlled manner across an organization’s systems to remediate known vulnerabilities and improve reliability, reducing the window of exposure to exploitation.

Q612. Which of the following provides the BEST method to verify that security baseline configurations are maintained?

Perform regular system security testing.

Design security early in the development cycle.

Analyze logs to determine user activities.

Perform quarterly risk assessments.

Security baseline configurations are the minimum security standards or requirements that a system or network must meet to ensure a basic level of security. Security baseline configurations are often defined by the organization’s policies, industry best practices, or regulatory compliance. The best method to verify that security baseline configurations are maintained is to perform regular system security testing. System security testing is a process of evaluating the security controls and mechanisms of a system or network to ensure that they are functioning properly and effectively. System security testing can help to identify any deviations from the security baseline configurations, as well as any new or emerging vulnerabilities or threats. Designing security early in the development cycle, analyzing logs to determine user activities, or performing quarterly risk assessments are also good practices, but they are not as effective or comprehensive as system security testing to verify that security baseline configurations are maintained. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 9: Security Assessment and Testing, page 566; CISSP Official (ISC)2 Practice Tests, Third Edition, Domain 6: Security Assessment and Testing, Question 6.5, page 241.

Q613. What does the term “100-year floodplain” mean to emergency preparedness officials?

The area is expected to be safe from flooding for at least 100 years.

The odds of a flood at this level are 1 in 100 in any given year.

The odds are that the next significant flood will hit within the next 100 years.

The last flood of any kind to hit the area was more than 100 years ago.

The term “100-year floodplain” means to emergency preparedness officials that the odds of a flood at this level are 1 in 100 in any given year. A floodplain is an area of land that is adjacent to a river, a lake, or an ocean, and that is prone to flooding when the water level rises due to heavy rainfall, snowmelt, or storm surge.
A floodplain can have different levels of flood risk, depending on the frequency and severity of the flooding events. A 100-year floodplain is a floodplain that has a 1% chance of being flooded by a flood that has a magnitude or intensity that is expected to occur once in 100 years, or that has a return period of 100 years. A
100-year floodplain does not mean that the area is expected to be safe from flooding for at least 100 years, or that the next significant flood will hit within the next 100 years, or that the last flood of any kind to hit the area was more than 100 years ago, as these are common misconceptions or misunderstandings of the term. A
100-year floodplain means that the area has a constant and annual probability of being flooded by a 100-year flood, regardless of the past or future flooding events. Emergency preparedness officials are the authorities or the professionals that are responsible for planning, organizing, coordinating, or executing the emergency response and recovery activities in the event of a disaster, such as a flood. Emergency preparedness officials need to understand the term “100-year floodplain” and its implications, as it can help them assess the flood risk and vulnerability of the area, and develop and implement the appropriate mitigation, preparedness, response, and recovery measures for the area. References:
* [Floodplain]
* [100-year Floodplain]
* [Emergency Preparedness Officials]

Q614. Refer to the information below to answer the question.
A new employee is given a laptop computer with full administrator access. This employee does not have a personal computer at home and has a child that uses the computer to send and receive e-mail, search the web, and use instant messaging. The organization’s Information Technology (IT) department discovers that a peer-to-peer program has been installed on the computer using the employee’s access.
Which of the following solutions would have MOST likely detected the use of peer-to-peer programs when the computer was connected to the office network?

Anti-virus software

Intrusion Prevention System (IPS)

Anti-spyware software

Integrity checking software

The best solution to detect the use of P2P programs when the computer was connected to the office network is an Intrusion Prevention System (IPS). An IPS is a device or a software that monitors, analyzes, and blocks the network traffic based on the predefined rules or policies, and that can prevent or stop any unauthorized or malicious access or activity on the network, such as P2P programs. An IPS can detect the use of P2P programs by inspecting the network packets, identifying the P2P protocols or signatures, and blocking or dropping the P2P traffic. Anti-virus software, anti-spyware software, and integrity checking software are not the best solutions to detect the use of P2P programs when the computer was connected to the office network, as they are related to the protection, removal, or verification of the software or files on the computer, not the monitoring, analysis, or blocking of the network traffic. References: CISSP All-in-One Exam Guide, Eighth Edition, Chapter 4, Communication and Network Security, page 512. Official (ISC)2 CISSP CBK Reference, Fifth Edition, Chapter 4, Communication and Network Security, page 528.

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[Aug 15, 2026] Pass ISC CISSP Exam Info and Free Practice Test [Q592-Q614]

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