[Feb-2025] Latest CompTIA CS0-003 exam dumps and online Test Engine [Q157-Q178]

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[Feb-2025] Latest CompTIA CS0-003 exam dumps and online Test Engine

CompTIA CS0-003: Selling CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst Products and Solutions

The CompTIA CS0-003 exam objectives for CS0-003 are divided into five domains, namely threat management, vulnerability management, security architecture and toolsets, cyber incident response, and compliance and assessment. The threat management domain covers the identification of various security threats and the implementation of security policies to prevent them from happening. The vulnerability management domain involves understanding the vulnerabilities present in the network and applying preventive measures to ensure that they are secure. The security architecture and toolsets domain deals with understanding and implementing the various tools and technologies used in cybersecurity.

Q157. A security analyst received an alert regarding multiple successful MFA log-ins for a particular user When reviewing the authentication logs the analyst sees the following:

Which of the following are most likely occurring, based on the MFA logs? (Select two).

Dictionary attack

Push phishing

impossible geo-velocity

Subscriber identity module swapping

Rogue access point

Password spray

Q158. The Chief Information Security Officer wants to eliminate and reduce shadow IT in the enterprise. Several high-risk cloud applications are used that increase the risk to the organization. Which of the following solutions will assist in reducing the risk?

Deploy a CASB and enable policy enforcement

Configure MFA with strict access

Deploy an API gateway

Enable SSO to the cloud applications

Q159. Which of the following is an important aspect that should be included in the lessons-learned step after an incident?

Identify any improvements or changes in the incident response plan or procedures

Determine if an internal mistake was made and who did it so they do not repeat the error

Present all legal evidence collected and turn it over to iaw enforcement

Discuss the financial impact of the incident to determine if security controls are well spent

Q160. A cybersecurity analyst has recovered a recently compromised server to its previous state. Which of the following should the analyst perform next?

Eradication

Isolation

Reporting

Forensic analysis

Q161. A systems administrator is reviewing after-hours traffic flows from data-center servers and sees regular outgoing HTTPS connections from one of the servers to a public IP address. The server should not be making outgoing connections after hours. Looking closer, the administrator sees this traffic pattern around the clock during work hours as well. Which of the following is the most likely explanation?

C2 beaconing activity

Data exfiltration

Anomalous activity on unexpected ports

Network host IP address scanning

A rogue network device

Q162. SIMULATION
A systems administrator is reviewing the output of a vulnerability scan.
INSTRUCTIONS
Review the information in each tab.
Based on the organization’s environment architecture and remediation standards, select the server to be patched within 14 days and select the appropriate technique and mitigation.

Step 1: Reviewing the Vulnerability Remediation Timeframes
The remediation standards require servers to be patched based on their CVSS score:
CVSS > 9.0: Patch within 7 days
CVSS 7.9 – 9.0: Patch within 14 days
CVSS 5.0 – 7.9: Patch within 30 days
CVSS 0 – 5.0: Patch within 60 days
Step 2: Analyzing the Output Tab
From the Output tab:
Server 192.168.76.5 has a CVSS score of 9.2 for an unsupported Microsoft IIS version, indicating a critical vulnerability requiring a patch within 7 days. Server 192.168.76.6 has a CVSS score of
7.4 for a missing secure attribute on HTTPS cookies, which falls in the 5.0 – 7.9 range, requiring a patch within 30 days. Since the question asks for the server to be patched within 14 days, we need to focus on servers with CVSS 7.9 – 9.0:
None of the servers have a CVSS score that falls precisely in the 7.9 – 9.0 range. However,
192.168.76.5, with a CVSS score of 9.2, has a vulnerability that necessitates a quick response and fits as it must be patched within the shortest timeframe (7 days, which includes 14 days). The server that fits within a 14-day urgency, based on standard practices, would be 192.168.76.5.
Step 3: Reviewing the Environment Tab
The Environment Tab provides additional context for 192.168.76.5:
It’s in the dev environment, which is internal and not publicly accessible. MFA is required, indicating security measures are already present.
Step 4: Selecting the Appropriate Technique and Mitigation
For 192.168.76.5, with the Microsoft IIS unsupported version:
Patch; upgrade IIS to the current release is the most suitable option, as upgrading IIS will resolve the unsupported software vulnerability by bringing it up-to-date with supported versions. This technique addresses the root cause, which is the unpatched, outdated software.
Summary
Server to be patched within 14 calendar days: 192.168.76.5 Appropriate technique and mitigation: Patch; upgrade IIS to the current release This approach ensures that the most critical vulnerabilities are addressed promptly, maintaining security compliance.

Q163. An analyst is conducting monitoring against an authorized team that win perform adversarial techniques. The analyst interacts with the team twice per day to set the stage for the techniques to be used. Which of the following teams is the analyst a member of?

Orange team

Blue team

Red team

Purple team

The correct answer is A. Orange team.
An orange team is a team that is involved in facilitation and training of other teams in cybersecurity. An orange team assists the yellow team, which is the management or leadership team that oversees the cybersecurity strategy and governance of an organization. An orange team helps the yellow team to understand the cybersecurity risks and challenges, as well as the roles and responsibilities of other teams, such as the red, blue, and purple teams12.
In this scenario, the analyst is conducting monitoring against an authorized team that will perform adversarial techniques. This means that the analyst is observing and evaluating the performance of another team that is simulating real-world attacks against the organization’s systems or networks. This could be either a red team or a purple team, depending on whether they are working independently or collaboratively with the defensive team345.
The analyst interacts with the team twice per day to set the stage for the techniques to be used. This means that the analyst is providing guidance and feedback to the team on how to conduct their testing and what techniques to use. This could also involve setting up scenarios, objectives, rules of engagement, and success criteria for the testing. This implies that the analyst is facilitating and training the team to improve their skills and capabilities in cybersecurity12.
Therefore, based on these descriptions, the analyst is a member of an orange team, which is involved in facilitation and training of other teams in cybersecurity.
The other options are incorrect because they do not match the role and function of the analyst in this scenario.
Option B is incorrect because a blue team is a defensive security team that monitors and protects the organization’s systems and networks from real or simulated attacks. A blue team does not conduct monitoring against an authorized team that will perform adversarial techniques, but rather defends against them345.
Option C is incorrect because a red team is an offensive security team that discovers and exploits vulnerabilities in the organization’s systems or networks by simulating real-world attacks. A red team does not conduct monitoring against an authorized team that will perform adversarial techniques, but rather performs them345.
Option D is incorrect because a purple team is not a separate security team, but rather a collaborative approach between the red and blue teams to improve the organization’s overall security. A purple team does not conduct monitoring against an authorized team that will perform adversarial techniques, but rather works with them345.
References:
1 Infosec Color Wheel & The Difference Between Red & Blue Teams
2 The colors of cybersecurity – UW-Madison Information Technology
3 Red Team vs. Blue Team vs. Purple Team Compared – U.S. Cybersecurity
4 Red Team vs. Blue Team vs. Purple Team: What’s The Difference? | Varonis
5 Red, blue, and purple teams: Cybersecurity roles explained | Pluralsight Blog

Q164. While reviewing the web server logs a security analyst notices the following snippet
…./…./boot.ini
Which of the following is being attempted?

Directory traversal

Remote file inclusion

Cross-site scripting

Remote code execution

Enumeration of/etc/pasawd

Q165. Which of the following best describes the document that defines the expectation to network customers that patching will only occur between 2:00 a.m. and 4:00 a.m.?

KPI

LOI

MOU

SLA

SLA (Service Level Agreement) is the best term to describe the document that defines the expectation to network customers that patching will only occur between 2:00 a.m. and 4:00 a.m., as it reflects the agreement between a service provider and a customer that specifies the services, quality, availability, and responsibilities that are agreed upon. An SLA is a common type of document that is used in various industries and contexts, such as IT, telecom, cloud computing, or outsourcing. An SLA typically includes metrics and indicators to measure the performance and quality of the service, such as uptime, response time, or resolution time. An SLA also defines the consequences or remedies for any breaches or failures of the service, such as penalties, refunds, or credits. An SLA can help to manage customer expectations, formalize communication, improve productivity, and strengthen relationships. The other terms are not as accurate as SLA, as they describe different types of documents or concepts. LOI (Letter of Intent) is a document that outlines the main terms and conditions of a proposed agreement between two or more parties, before a formal contract is signed. An LOI is usually non-binding and expresses the intention or interest of the parties to enter into a future agreement. An LOI can help to clarify the key points of a deal, facilitate negotiations, or demonstrate commitment. MOU (Memorandum of Understanding) is a document that describes a mutual agreement or cooperation between two or more parties, without creating any legal obligations or commitments. An MOU is usually more formal than an LOI, but less formal than a contract. An MOU can help to establish a common ground, define roles and responsibilities, or outline expectations and goals. KPI (Key Performance Indicator) is a concept that refers to a measurable value that demonstrates how effectively an organization or individual is achieving its key objectives or goals. A KPI is usually quantifiable and specific, such as revenue growth, customer satisfaction, or employee retention. A KPI can help to track progress, evaluate performance, or identify areas for improvement.

Q166. Two employees in the finance department installed a freeware application that contained embedded malware. The network is robustly segmented based on areas of responsibility. These computers had critical sensitive information stored locally that needs to be recovered. The department manager advised all department employees to turn off their computers until the security team could be contacted about the issue. Which of the following is the first step the incident response staff members should take when they arrive?

Turn on all systems, scan for infection, and back up data to a USB storage device.

Identify and remove the software installed on the impacted systems in the department.

Explain that malware cannot truly be removed and then reimage the devices.

Log on to the impacted systems with an administrator account that has privileges to perform backups.

Segment the entire department from the network and review each computer offline.

Q167. Which of the following best describes the key elements of a successful information security program?

Business impact analysis, asset and change management, and security communication plan

Security policy implementation, assignment of roles and responsibilities, and information asset classification

Disaster recovery and business continuity planning, and the definition of access control requirements and human resource policies

Senior management organizational structure, message distribution standards, and procedures for the operation of security management systems

Q168. The Chief Information Security Officer for an organization recently received approval to install a new EDR solution. Following the installation, the number of alerts that require remediation by an analyst has tripled. Which of the following should the organization utilize to best centralize the workload for the internal security team? (Select two).

SOAR

SIEM

MSP

NGFW

XDR

DLP

Q169. While reviewing web server logs, a security analyst found the following line:<IMG SRC=’vbscript:msgbox(“test”)’> Which of the following malicious activities was attempted?

Command injection

XML injection

Server-side request forgery

Cross-site scripting

Q170. A regulated organization experienced a security breach that exposed a list of customer names with corresponding PII data. Which of the following is the best reason for developing the organization’s communication plans?

For the organization’s public relations department to have a standard notification

To ensure incidents are immediately reported to a regulatory agency

To automate the notification to customers who were impacted by the breach

To have approval from executive leadership on when communication should occur

Q171. Executives at an organization email sensitive financial information to external business partners when negotiating valuable contracts. To ensure the legal validity of these messages, the cybersecurity team recommends a digital signature be added to emails sent by the executives. Which of the following are the primary goals of this recommendation? (Select two).

Confidentiality

Integrity

Privacy

Anonymity

Non-repudiation

Authorization

Q172. A company is concerned with finding sensitive file storage locations that are open to the public.
The current internal cloud network is flat. Which of the following is the best solution to secure the network?

Implement segmentation with ACLs.

Configure logging and monitoring to the SIEM.

Deploy MFA to cloud storage locations.

Roll out an IDS.

Q173. A recent zero-day vulnerability is being actively exploited, requires no user interaction or privilege escalation, and has a significant impact to confidentiality and integrity but not to availability.
Which of the following CVE metrics would be most accurate for this zero-day threat?

CVSS:31/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:N/S:U/C:H/I:H/A:L

CVSS:31/AV:K/AC:L/PR:H/UI:R/S:C/C:H/I:H/A:L

CVSS:31/AV:N/AC:L/PR:N/UI:H/S:U/C:L/I:N/A:H

CVSS:31/AV:L/AC:L/PR:R/UI:R/S:U/C:H/I:L/A:H

Q174. A company brings in a consultant to make improvements to its website. After the consultant leaves. a web developer notices unusual activity on the website and submits a suspicious file containing the following code to the security team:

Which of the following did the consultant do?

Implanted a backdoor

Implemented privilege escalation

Implemented clickjacking

Patched the web server

The correct answer is A. Implanted a backdoor.
A backdoor is a method that allows an unauthorized user to access a system or network without the permission or knowledge of the owner. A backdoor can be installed by exploiting a software vulnerability, by using malware, or by physically modifying the hardware or firmware of the device. A backdoor can be used for various malicious purposes, such as stealing data, installing malware, executing commands, or taking control of the system.
In this case, the consultant implanted a backdoor in the website by using an HTML and PHP code snippet that displays an image of a shutdown button and an alert message that says “Exit”. However, the code also echoes the remote address of the server, which means that it sends the IP address of the visitor to the attacker. This way, the attacker can identify and target the visitors of the website and use their IP addresses to launch further attacks or gain access to their devices.
The code snippet is an example of a clickjacking attack, which is a type of interface-based attack that tricks a user into clicking on a hidden or disguised element on a webpage. However, clickjacking is not the main goal of the consultant, but rather a means to implant the backdoor. Therefore, option C is incorrect.
Option B is also incorrect because privilege escalation is an attack technique that allows an attacker to gain higher or more permissions than they are supposed to have on a system or network. Privilege escalation can be achieved by exploiting a software vulnerability, by using malware, or by abusing misconfigurations or weak access controls. However, there is no evidence that the consultant implemented privilege escalation on the website or gained any elevated privileges.
Option D is also incorrect because patching is a process of applying updates to software to fix errors, improve performance, or enhance security. Patching can prevent or mitigate various types of attacks, such as exploits, malware infections, or denial-of-service attacks. However, there is no indication that the consultant patched the web server or improved its security in any way.
References:
* 1 What Is a Backdoor & How to Prevent Backdoor Attacks (2023)
* 2 What is Clickjacking? Tutorial & Examples | Web Security Academy
* 3 What Is Privilege Escalation and How It Relates to Web Security | Acunetix
* 4 What Is Patching? | Best Practices For Patch Management – cWatch Blog

Q175. A security analyst is trying to identify possible network addresses from different source networks belonging to the same company and region. Which of the following shell script functions could help achieve the goal?

function w() { a=$(ping -c 1 $1 | awk-F “/” ‘END{print $1}’) && echo “$1 | $a” }

function x() { b=traceroute -m 40 $1 | awk ‘END{print $1}’) && echo “$1 | $b” }

function y() { dig $(dig -x $1 | grep PTR | tail -n 1 | awk -F “.in-addr” ‘{print $1}’).origin.asn.cymru.com TXT +short }

function z() { c=$(geoiplookup$1) && echo “$1 | $c” }

Q176. A company has the following security requirements:
. No public IPs
All data secured at rest
. No insecure ports/protocols
After a cloud scan is completed, a security analyst receives reports that several misconfigurations are putting the company at risk. Given the following cloud scanner output:

Which of the following should the analyst recommend be updated first to meet the security requirements and reduce risks?

VM_PRD_DB

VM_DEV_DB

VM_DEV_Web02

VM_PRD_Web01

Q177. Which of the following concepts is using an API to insert bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system an example of?

Command and control

Data enrichment

Automation

Single sign-on

Automation is the best concept to describe the example, as it reflects the use of technology to perform tasks or processes without human intervention. Automation can help to improve efficiency, accuracy, consistency, and scalability of various operations, such as identity and access management (IAM). IAM is a security framework that enables organizations to manage the identities and access rights of users and devices across different systems and applications. IAM can help to ensure that only authorized users and devices can access the appropriate resources at the appropriate time and for the appropriate purpose. IAM can involve various tasks or processes, such as authentication, authorization, provisioning, deprovisioning, auditing, or reporting.
Automation can help to simplify and streamline these tasks or processes by using software tools or scripts that can execute predefined actions or workflows based on certain triggers or conditions. For example, automation can help to create, update, or delete user accounts in bulk based on a file or a database, rather than manually entering or modifying each account individually. The example in the question shows that an API is used to insert bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system. An API (Application Programming Interface) is a set of rules or specifications that defines how different software components or systems can communicate and exchange data with each other. An API can help to enable automation by providing a standardized and consistent way to access and manipulate data or functionality of a software component or system. The example in the question shows that an API is used to automate the process of inserting bulk access requests from a file into an identity management system, rather than manually entering each request one by one. The other options are not correct, as they describe different concepts or techniques. Command and control is a term that refers to the ability of an attacker to remotely control a compromised system or device, such as using malware or backdoors. Command and control is not related to what is described in the example.
Data enrichment is a term that refers to the process of enhancing or augmenting existing data with additional information from external sources, such as adding demographic or behavioral attributes to customer profiles.
Data enrichment is not related to what is described in the example. Single sign-on is a term that refers to an authentication method that allows users to access multiple systems or applications with one set of credentials, such as using a single username and password for different websites or services. Single sign-on is not related to what is described in the example.

Q178. The developers recently deployed new code to three web servers. A daffy automated external device scan report shows server vulnerabilities that are failure items according to PCI DSS.
If the venerability is not valid, the analyst must take the proper steps to get the scan clean.
If the venerability is valid, the analyst must remediate the finding.
After reviewing the information provided in the network diagram, select the STEP 2 tab to complete the simulation by selecting the correct Validation Result and Remediation Action for each server listed using the drop-down options.
INTRUCTIONS:
The simulation includes 2 steps.
Step1:Review the information provided in the network diagram and then move to the STEP 2 tab.

STEP 2: Given the Scenario, determine which remediation action is required to address the vulnerability.

CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) certification is an intermediate-level certification that focuses on the skills and knowledge required to identify, analyze, and respond to security incidents in a business environment. The CySA+ certification exam is designed to validate the skills of cybersecurity professionals and prepare them for a career in the field of cybersecurity. CS0-003 exam covers a range of topics, including threat and vulnerability management, incident response, security architecture and toolsets, and more.

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[Feb-2025] Latest CompTIA CS0-003 exam dumps and online Test Engine [Q157-Q178]

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