Get 100% Success with Latest CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst CS0-003 Exam Dumps Oct 21, 2024 [Q27-Q44]

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Get 100% Success with Latest CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst CS0-003 Exam Dumps Oct 21, 2024

The Best CS0-003 Exam Study Material and Preparation Test Question Dumps

QUESTION 27
While monitoring the information security notification mailbox, a security analyst notices several emails were reported as spam. Which of the following should the analyst do FIRST?

Block the sender In the email gateway.

Delete the email from the company’s email servers.

Ask the sender to stop sending messages.

Review the message in a secure environment.

QUESTION 28
After updating the email client to the latest patch, only about 15% of the workforce is able to use email. Windows 10 users do not experience issues, but Windows 11 users have constant issues. Which of the following did the change management team fail to do?

Implementation

Testing

Rollback

Validation

Testing is a crucial step in any change management process, as it ensures that the change is compatible with the existing systems and does not cause any errors or disruptions. In this case, the change management team failed to test the email client patch on Windows 11 devices, which resulted in a widespread issue for the users. Testing would have revealed the problem before the patch was deployed, and allowed the team to fix it or postpone the change.

QUESTION 29
A company has the following security requirements:
. No public IPs
All data secured at rest
. No insecure ports/protocols
After a cloud scan is completed, a security analyst receives reports that several misconfigurations are putting the company at risk. Given the following cloud scanner output:

Which of the following should the analyst recommend be updated first to meet the security requirements and reduce risks?

VM_PRD_DB

VM_DEV_DB

VM_DEV_Web02

VM_PRD_Web01

This VM has a public IP and an open port 80, which violates the company’s security requirements of no public IPs and no insecure ports/protocols. It also exposes the VM to potential attacks from the internet. This VM should be updated first to use a private IP and close the port 80, or use a secure protocol such as HTTPS.
References[CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition], Chapter 2: Cloud and Hybrid Environments, page 67.[What is a Public IP Address?][What is Port 80?]

QUESTION 30
An organization enabled a SIEM rule to send an alert to a security analyst distribution list when ten failed logins occur within one minute. However, the control was unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins.
Which of the following best represents what occurred?

False positive

True negative

False negative

True positive

Explanation
The correct answer is C. False negative.
A false negative is a situation where an attack or a threat is not detected by a security control, even though it should have been. In this case, the SIEM rule was unable to detect an attack with nine failed logins, which is below the threshold of ten failed logins that triggers an alert. This means that the SIEM rule missed a potential attack and failed to alert the security analysts, resulting in a false negative.
A false positive is a situation where a benign or normal activity is detected as an attack or a threat by a security control, even though it is not. A true negative is a situation where a benign or normal activity is not detected as an attack or a threat by a security control, as expected. A true positive is a situation where an attack or a threat is detected by a security control, as expected. These are not the correct answers for this question.

QUESTION 31
During a scan of a web server in the perimeter network, a vulnerability was identified that could be exploited over port 3389. The web server is protected by a WAF. Which of the following best represents the change to overall risk associated with this vulnerability?

The risk would not change because network firewalls are in use.

The risk would decrease because RDP is blocked by the firewall.

The risk would decrease because a web application firewall is in place.

The risk would increase because the host is external facing.

Port 3389 is commonly used by Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP), which is a service that allows remote access to a system. A vulnerability on this port could allow an attacker to compromise the web server or use it as a pivot point to access other systems. However, if the firewall blocks this port, the risk of exploitation is reduced.
References: CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 2: Software and Systems Security, page 67; CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 3: Software and Systems Security, page 103.

QUESTION 32
Due to reports of unauthorized activity that was occurring on the internal network, an analyst is performing a network discovery. The analyst runs an Nmap scan against a corporate network to evaluate which devices were operating in the environment. Given the following output:

Which of the following choices should the analyst look at first?

wh4dc-748gy.lan (192.168.86.152)

lan (192.168.86.22)

imaging.lan (192.168.86.150)

xlaptop.lan (192.168.86.249)

p4wnp1_aloa.lan (192.168.86.56)

The analyst should look at p4wnp1_aloa.lan (192.168.86.56) first, as this is the most suspicious device on the network. P4wnP1 ALOA is a tool that can be used to create a malicious USB device that can perform various attacks, such as keystroke injection, network sniffing, man-in-the-middle, or backdoor creation. The presence of a device with this name on the network could indicate that an attacker has plugged in a malicious USB device to a system and gained access to the network. Official Reference: https://github.com/mame82/P4wnP1_aloa

QUESTION 33
An organization wants to implement a privileged access management solution to better manage the use to emergency and privileged service accounts. Which of the following would BEST satisfy the organization’s goal?

Access control lists

Discretionary access controls

Policy-based access controls

Credential vaulting

QUESTION 34
A digital forensics investigator works from duplicate images to preserve the integrity of the original evidence. Which of the following types of media are most volatile and should be preserved? (Select two).

Memory cache

Registry file

SSD storage

Temporary filesystems

Packet decoding

Swap volume

Memory cache and swap volume are types of media that are most volatile and should be preserved during a digital forensics investigation. Volatile media are those that store data temporarily and lose their contents when the power is turned off or interrupted. Memory cache is a small and fast memory that stores frequently used data or instructions for faster access by the processor. Swap volume is a part of the hard disk that is used as an extension of the memory when the memory is full or low .

QUESTION 35
During an internal code review, software called “ACE” was discovered to have a vulnerability that allows the execution of arbitrary code. The vulnerability is in a legacy, third-party vendor resource that is used by the ACE software. ACE is used worldwide and is essential for many businesses in this industry. Developers informed the Chief Information Security Officer that removal of the vulnerability will take time. Which of the following is the first action to take?

Look for potential loCs in the company.

Inform customers of the vulnerability.

Remove the affected vendor resource from the ACE software.

Develop a compensating control until the issue can be fixed permanently.

A compensating control is an alternative measure that provides a similar level of protection as the original control, but is used when the original control is not feasible or cost-effective. In this case, the CISO should develop a compensating control to mitigate the risk of the vulnerability in the ACE software, such as implementing additional monitoring, firewall rules, or encryption, until the issue can be fixed permanently by the developers. Reference: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 5, page 197; CompTIA CySA+ CS0-003 Certification Study Guide, Chapter 5, page 205.

QUESTION 36
A security analyst performs various types of vulnerability scans. Review the vulnerability scan results to determine the type of scan that was executed and if a false positive occurred for each device.
Instructions:
Select the Results Generated drop-down option to determine if the results were generated from a credentialed scan, non-credentialed scan, or a compliance scan.
For ONLY the credentialed and non-credentialed scans, evaluate the results for false positives and check the findings that display false positives. NOTE: If you would like to uncheck an option that is currently selected, click on the option a second time.
Lastly, based on the vulnerability scan results, identify the type of Server by dragging the Server to the results.
The Linux Web Server, File-Print Server and Directory Server are draggable.
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset All button. When you have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the Next button to continue.

QUESTION 37
A cryptocurrency service company is primarily concerned with ensuring the accuracy of the data on one of its systems. A security analyst has been tasked with prioritizing vulnerabilities for remediation for the system.
The analyst will use the following CVSSv3.1 impact metrics for prioritization:

Which of the following vulnerabilities should be prioritized for remediation?

Vulnerability 2 has the highest impact metrics, specifically the highest attack vector (AV) and attack complexity (AC) values. This means that the vulnerability is more likely to be exploited and more difficult to remediate.
References:
CVSS v3.1 Specification Document, section 2.1.1 and 2.1.2
The CVSS v3 Vulnerability Scoring System, section 3.1 and 3.2

QUESTION 38
During security scanning, a security analyst regularly finds the same vulnerabilities in a critical application. Which of the following recommendations would best mitigate this problem if applied along the SDLC phase?

Conduct regular red team exercises over the application in production

Ensure that all implemented coding libraries are regularly checked

Use application security scanning as part of the pipeline for the CI/CDflow

Implement proper input validation for any data entry form

Application security scanning is a process that involves testing and analyzing applications for security vulnerabilities, such as injection flaws, broken authentication, cross-site scripting, and insecure configuration. Application security scanning can help identify and fix security issues before they become exploitable by attackers. Using application security scanning as part of the pipeline for the continuous integration/continuous delivery (CI/CD) flow can help mitigate the problem of finding the same vulnerabilities in a critical application during security scanning. This is because application security scanning can be integrated into the development lifecycle and performed automatically and frequently as part of the CI/CD process.

QUESTION 39
An analyst recommends that an EDR agent collect the source IP address, make a connection to the firewall, and create a policy to block the malicious source IP address across the entire network automatically. Which of the following is the best option to help the analyst implement this recommendation?

SOAR

SIEM

SLA

IoC

Explanation
SOAR (Security Orchestration, Automation, and Response) is the best option to help the analyst implement the recommendation, as it reflects the software solution that enables security teams to integrate and coordinate separate tools into streamlined threat response workflows and automate repetitive tasks. SOAR is a term coined by Gartner in 2015 to describe a technology that combines the functions of security incident response platforms, security orchestration and automation platforms, and threat intelligence platforms in one offering.
SOAR solutions help security teams to collect inputs from various sources, such as EDR agents, firewalls, or SIEM systems, and perform analysis and triage using a combination of human and machine power. SOAR solutions also allow security teams to define and execute incident response procedures in a digital workflow format, using automation to perform low-level tasks or actions, such as blocking an IP address or quarantining a device. SOAR solutions can help security teams to improve efficiency, consistency, and scalability of their operations, as well as reduce mean time to detect (MTTD) and mean time to respond (MTTR) to threats. The other options are not as suitable as SOAR, as they do not match the description or purpose of the recommendation. SIEM (Security Information and Event Management) is a software solution that collects and analyzes data from various sources, such as logs, events, or alerts, and provides security monitoring, threat detection, and incident response capabilities. SIEM solutions can help security teams to gain visibility, correlation, and context of their security data, but they do not provide automation or orchestration features like SOAR solutions. SLA (Service Level Agreement) is a document that defines the expectations and responsibilities between a service provider and a customer, such as the quality, availability, or performance of the service. SLAs can help to manage customer expectations, formalize communication, and improve productivity and relationships, but they do not help to implement technical recommendations like SOAR solutions. IoC (Indicator of Compromise) is a piece of data or evidence that suggests a system or network has been compromised by a threat actor, such as an IP address, a file hash, or a registry key. IoCs can help to identify and analyze malicious activities or incidents, but they do not help to implement response actions like SOAR solutions.

QUESTION 40
A security analyst is performing vulnerability scans on the network. The analyst installs a scanner appliance, configures the subnets to scan, and begins the scan of the network. Which of the following would be missing from a scan performed with this configuration?

Operating system version

Registry key values

Open ports

IP address

Registry key values would be missing from a scan performed with this configuration, as the scanner appliance would not have access to the Windows Registry of the scanned systems. The Windows Registry is a database that stores configuration settings and options for the operating system and installed applications. To scan the Registry, the scanner would need to have credentials to log in to the systems and run a local agent or script.
The other items would not be missing from the scan, as they can be detected by the scanner appliance without credentials. Operating system version can be identified by analyzing service banners or fingerprinting techniques. Open ports can be discovered by performing a port scan or sending probes to common ports. IP address can be obtained by resolving the hostname or using network discovery tools.
https://attack.mitre.org/techniques/T1112/

QUESTION 41
A security analyst is reviewing events that occurred during a possible compromise. The analyst obtains the following log:

Which of the following is most likely occurring, based on the events in the log?

An adversary is attempting to find the shortest path of compromise.

An adversary is performing a vulnerability scan.

An adversary is escalating privileges.

An adversary is performing a password stuffing attack.

.
Explanation:
Based on the events in the log, the most likely occurrence is that an adversary is performing a vulnerability scan. The log shows LDAP read operations and EDR enumerating local groups, which are indicative of an adversary scanning the system to find vulnerabilities or sensitive information. The final entry shows SMB connection attempts to multiple hosts from a single host, which could be a sign of network discovery or lateral movement. Reference: CompTIA CySA+ Study Guide: Exam CS0-003, 3rd Edition, Chapter 4: Security Operations and Monitoring, page 161; Monitor logs from vulnerability scanners, Section: Reports on Nessus vulnerability data.

QUESTION 42
The vulnerability analyst reviews threat intelligence regarding emerging vulnerabilities affecting workstations that are used within the company:

Which of the following vulnerabilities should the analyst be most concerned about, knowing that end users frequently click on malicious links sent via email?

Vulnerability A

Vulnerability B

Vulnerability C

Vulnerability D

Vulnerability B is the vulnerability that the analyst should be most concerned about, knowing that end users frequently click on malicious links sent via email. Vulnerability B is a remote code execution vulnerability in Microsoft Outlook that allows an attacker to run arbitrary code on the target system by sending a specially crafted email message. This vulnerability is very dangerous, as it does not require any user interaction or attachment opening to trigger the exploit. The attacker only needs to send an email to the victim’s Outlook account, and the code will execute automatically when Outlook connects to the Exchange server. This vulnerability has a high severity rating of 9.8 out of 10, and it affects all supported versions of Outlook.
Therefore, the analyst should prioritize patching this vulnerability as soon as possible to prevent potential compromise of the workstations.

QUESTION 43
A security analyst is reviewing the following alert that was triggered by FIM on a critical system:

Which of the following best describes the suspicious activity that is occurring?

A fake antivirus program was installed by the user.

A network drive was added to allow exfiltration of data

A new program has been set to execute on system start

The host firewall on 192.168.1.10 was disabled.

Explanation
A new program has been set to execute on system start is the most likely cause of the suspicious activity that is occurring, as it indicates that the malware has modified the registry keys of the system to ensure its persistence. File Integrity Monitoring (FIM) is a tool that monitors changes to files and registry keys on a system and alerts the security analyst of any unauthorized or malicious modifications. The alert triggered by FIM shows that the malware has created a new registry key under the Run subkey, which is used to launch programs automatically when the system starts. The new registry key points to a file named “update.exe” in the Temp folder, which is likely a malicious executable disguised as a legitimate update file. Official References:
https://www.comptia.org/blog/the-new-comptia-cybersecurity-analyst-your-questions-answered
https://partners.comptia.org/docs/default-source/resources/comptia-cysa-cs0-002-exam-objectives
https://www.comptia.org/training/books/cysa-cs0-002-study-guide

QUESTION 44
Due to reports of unauthorized activity that was occurring on the internal network, an analyst is performing a network discovery. The analyst runs an Nmap scan against a corporate network to evaluate which devices were operating in the environment. Given the following output:

Which of the following choices should the analyst look at first?

wh4dc-748gy.lan (192.168.86.152)

officerckuplayer.lan (192.168.86.22)

imaging.lan (192.168.86.150)

xlaptop.lan (192.168.86.249)

p4wnp1_aloa.lan (192.168.86.56)

The analyst should look at p4wnp1_aloa.lan (192.168.86.56) first, as this is the most suspicious device on the network. P4wnP1 ALOA is a tool that can be used to create a malicious USB device that can perform various attacks, such as keystroke injection, network sniffing, man-in-the- middle, or backdoor creation. The presence of a device with this name on the network could indicate that an attacker has plugged in a malicious USB device to a system and gained access to the network.

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CompTIA CS0-003 certification exam is a valuable certification for cybersecurity analysts who want to advance their careers. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification exam is designed to test a candidate’s ability to perform cybersecurity analysis and respond to threats. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification exam covers various topics such as network security, threat management, security operations, and incident response. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification exam is computer-based and can be taken at any Pearson VUE testing center.

The CySA+ certification validates the skills needed to defend and protect an organization’s systems and networks from cyber threats. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification emphasizes the importance of applying analytics and intelligence to identify potential threats and vulnerabilities. CS0-003 exam covers various topics such as incident response, security operations and monitoring, threat intelligence, and vulnerability management. CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) Certification Exam certification also emphasizes hands-on experience and practical skills, ensuring that individuals who pass the exam are well-equipped to handle real-world cybersecurity scenarios.

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